Just a personal memo to myself. Being in love lasts three years, I read someplace. I find it difficult to believe assertions on neurology and love. Not so long ago, homosexuality was seen as a disorder. Even now, there are people who claim it can be "cured".
I'm not an authority, but I find it impossible to believe that:
a) Single-blind (not even double-blind) conditions can be met. The subjects know what is studied, as much as the researchers, since the only way to gauge the outcome is to ask a question: "are you still in love with...?"
b) The possibility of interference with the sample seems very real to me. Is a couple kissing in an artificial setup going to respond in the same way as they would, left to their own devices?
c) Are the samples taken representative by age bracket, prior experiences, social background/status, educational level, etc?
d) Is a three-year cut-off a result that can be duplicated?
e) I am not aware of these, because I did not look. However, what are the researchers' positions prior to the study, is there a prior bias?
f) Even accepting a three-year cut-off for being in love, as an average, that would be just an average. Maybe some subjects would stop being in love at six months, maybe some would last a lot longer.
g) The measurements of outcome is not objectively measurable. People can and do lie about being in love (or not being in love) on a daily basis, for reasons of their own.
Shit, I always end up with more questions than answers. Time to do some reading, and check the peer review.
And, maybe, get some answers. Meanwhile, it does look like another case of determinism.
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